14 Comments
Dec 27, 2022·edited Dec 27, 2022Liked by Med Mal Reviewer

The first platelet count of 32,000 would have given me pause regarding LP without CT, but I would CT pretty much all heads prior to LP. The prednisone given on first visit could have caused the increased platelet count and steered clinical concern away from spontaneous bleed if one did not know the previous lower count.

Although 78,000 would not worry me as much for risk of bleeding post-LP, I wonder if the ED doc was trying to talk him-/herself into not doing the LP. Unlike hospital records, I don't routinely call for prior urgent care records, but perhaps I will going forward, or at least document they weren't available if after 'business hours'.

Hooray for indiscriminate steroid prescribing. I'm surprised there wasn't a Z-pak in the mix somewhere.

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Dec 27, 2022Liked by Med Mal Reviewer

The platelets of 32 should have been addressed, especially in a young woman without family history of coagulopathy. Documenting that as normal was really damning for that first NP. The ER doctor absolutely had rationale to order a CT at his first encounter with her given her neuro symptoms and the duration of her headache. The somnolence should have also been a big red flag in an otherwise healthy 27 year old (IMO). Always easy to see in hindsight though. Thank you so much for these cases, I've shared with multiple colleagues.

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Dec 27, 2022Liked by Med Mal Reviewer

I thought of Dr. Greg Henry's pearl of wisdom while reading this case. If someone comes back a third time admit them, even if its the pizza man. Good case.

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ery intriguing case, I am surprised the thrombocytopenia was not worked up further in the outpt or inpt settings, so many differentials besides ITP, secondary causes etc DITP, infective, SLE/ APLS , Liver, MDS, TTP, HUS, **infection,

I would appreciate more polls under the future cases,

being a resident in major metropolitan area sometimes our attending supervise 4-5 NP's at once and there is also an NP 'fellowship', sounds like recipe for disaster. I will be sure to explicitly not supervise NP's until I have a good decade of post residency experience under my belt.

A few questions - if plts < 50 x 10^9 without bleeding diathesis - I realize mos transfusion guidelines recommend < 30 or <20 but if she had petechiae in itself would consider transfusing here as well?

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Interesting case. Does Lyme igG not suggest historic exposure? It’s not endemic where I am so don’t come across it much.

A differential would be a first presentation of ITP… this would explain why the platelet count increased after a course of steroids and why the patient bled despite an ok count. I think ITP would explain the blood findings too.

Personally I would put more blame on the ED dr than the NPs… no CT for a headache presenting for the third time with possible AMS and low plts is a tough one to jusitfy.

Not doing the LP with plts >50 (or at least ringing haem for advice) is also a rookie error.

Always easy to criticise in retrospect.

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What an interesting case, so much to learn and make sure that we don’t fall into diagnostic anchoring. Curious question, do you have a poll under each case or just that interesting ones?

Thank you for all the work that you do.

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